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You know what, I think this thread has been beaten, sliced, diced, chopped, mixed, minced and pureed -- and for fewer payments each month.

'Nuff said.

But even then, isn't it generally in relation to a criminal situation rather than a civil (e.g., divorce) case? The idea of "tainted" evidence is what comes to mind. I'm just trying to get this clear...

Stupid question but why? I always thought it was those in the legal profession (i.e., representatives of the state).

And for pure curiosity sake, what laws specific prevent private citizens from...