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November 15th, 2007, 11:09 PM
#1
An Intranet DNS Question
Ok, so I've got a topic to start here -- Never seen this before, but I'm sure one of you guys will have a simple answer for it.
So I'm gonna give BS names to everything. Let's see we're in LAN domain.com, and server1 is the DC while server2 is the file server.
So if I need to map a drive to user_share folder, I'm going to map a drive to \\server2\user_share. That's the way I've always seen it done. So far, very basic here.
So at the new place I'm working, I've encountered a method I've never seen before nor knew was possible:
Here, if I want to access \\server2\user_share, I actually map a drive to \\domain.com\user_share, and it maps to the exact same location.
So my question is this: If DNS resolves the domain to the DC, so that when I ping domain.com it returns with the IP address of the DC, how is it DNS is allowing me to get to the file server by going to \\domain.com\user_share? How is that not resolving to server1 instead?
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