worm operation theory / question
question for understanding purposes... i've put a great deal of thought into this as have many in our shop. We have the extensions as well as the subject lines blocked so we do not scare the customers... however every now and then a customer will get an email saying something to the effect of "an email you sent had an infected attachment xxx.pif (whatever the name would be) ... and it says to contact the system administrator"
now according to symantecs info on the worm
W32.Sobig.F@mm uses a technique known as "spoofing," by which the worm randomly selects an address it finds on an infected computer. The worm uses this address as the "From" address when it performs its mass-mailing routine. Numerous cases have been reported in which users of uninfected computers received complaints that they sent an infected message to another individual.
taken from http://[email protected]
the way i read that is if a user outside of our network had one of our customers in their address book, the worm could then take and use their address to send out to everyone the address book contains.
i'm pretty sure that is correct.. now...
when these emails get detected as an infected email, it sends it back to the "sender" which in this case would be one of our customers. So they get an email inside our network saying that an attachment they sent was infected. Of course they dont know who they sent it to, nor remember sending the email...
Is this what is happening? Its the only thing that i can possibly think of to explain it. Help me out!