View Poll Results: A thrid(last) chance for Gbin@ryR ?
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March 21st, 2002, 03:54 PM
#21
if you take the idea of 0 "zero' and multiply it by the infinitness of existence, as defined in my above post, (because it is the only true infinite) then you will recieve an infinite calculation, thus creating infinite existence
i understand what you are saying... but i think you are not thinking about it properly. zero does not equal pure nothing but it means none. if you have zero apples, you have none. if you have zero shoes, like wise. in math 0*x can be read as.... zero x's (x being any number) or x zero's. so in other words, if i have zero ones, you still have zzero. if you have zero "infinite existences" there is still zero. but regardles.... we weren't discussing true zero and true infinites. and even if we were, if you use true infinite (a concept that i am not so sure even exists... i guess it is more of a belief not a law.) then you have to use true zero... another thing that people are unsure of it's existence. not that it matters. cause in math or in real life.... if you have zero of anything... you have zero. iif you have any number of zeros (1,2,infinite) you still have zero. this is the only way to think of it. the law of zero presides over the law of infinity
Learn like you are going to live forever, live like you are going to die tomorrow.
Propoganda
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March 21st, 2002, 04:00 PM
#22
i agree with you... but.....
but if negitives exist, then that must means that zero is not nothing.... you cant have less then complete nonexistence.
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March 21st, 2002, 04:19 PM
#23
but if negitives exist, then that must means that zero is not nothing.... you cant have less then complete nonexistence.
i never disagreed with that. i was saying that zero means none or nothing. you are talk about a whole new level of zero that really doesn't matter in the discussion. zero doesn't mean complete nonexistance (that is what i am thinking you are saying) it is a symbol for having none. just as one is the symbol for having none "true zero" on the other hand is a term coined by some theorists and is a philisophical term for complete nothing. this has nothing to do with the term zero. (as used in everyday life)
We start, then, with nothing, pure zero. But this is not the nothing of negation. For not means other than, and other is merely a synonym of the ordinal numeral second. As such it implies a first; while the present pure zero is prior to every first. The nothing of negation is the nothing of death, which comes second to, or after, everything. But this pure zero is the nothing of not having been born. There is no individual thing, no compulsion, outward nor inward, no law. It is the germinal nothing, in which the whole universe is involved or foreshadowed. As such, it is absolutely undefined and unlimited possibility -- boundless possibility. There is no compulsion and no law. It is boundless freedom.
-Charles S. Peirce, "Logic of Events" (1898)
you can find more theological ezplanations of nothing at http://www.nothing.com
more explanation on two of the types of infinity: http://www.mattababy.org/~belmonte/P..._infinity.html
Learn like you are going to live forever, live like you are going to die tomorrow.
Propoganda
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March 21st, 2002, 04:24 PM
#24
oo ill have to read that stuff, thanks  
thanks for not flaming me and ****, usually i get bitched out for talkin about this crap, lol
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March 21st, 2002, 04:44 PM
#25
lol... i know the feeling.... i try to not ever flame anyone.... it works better.....
Learn like you are going to live forever, live like you are going to die tomorrow.
Propoganda
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March 21st, 2002, 08:26 PM
#26
infinity times zero is infinite zeros... simple as that.
If you think of infinity as eternal and zero as nothing, it's eternal nothingness, but it's NOT eternal nothingness, cause Zero is something - its a word. So it would simply be infinite zeros, or, cancelling down, Zero.
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March 26th, 2002, 03:12 AM
#27
Senior Member
Well you can prove anything with algebra, I managed to confuse my calculus teacher..
He stared at my problem for like 5 minutes before he realized what I had done:
0*1=0 so...
Let:
a = 0
b = 1
a*b = a
b = a/a
b = 1
In this case it proves correctly, but what I did was impossible with real numbers. Lets use b = 2:
Let:
a = 0
b = 2
a*b = a
b = a/a
b = 1
Therefore: 2 = 1
See? How about:
1/0=INF
So...
1 = 0*Inf...
Using any number substituted for 1, we can prove everything is equal to 0 if Rewandythal's argument is correct, and I agree with it.
Reality is the one who has it wrong, not you
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March 29th, 2002, 06:35 AM
#28
Junior Member
I say zero and here's a little explanation (if you understand it):
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/problem...o.3.17.97.html
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March 29th, 2002, 03:20 PM
#29
1/0=INF
So...
1 = 0*Inf...
also 2/0=INF so...
2=0*INF.... thus this can go on forever. excluding 0/0
this is a completely illogical line of reasoning. reason 1 being that anything divided by zero is not infinity it is undefined and if you divide by zero in upper levels of calculus, you get a number. not infinity. so really what you should say is....
1/0=Undefined
so...
0*undefined =1
second, let me repeat something for everyone.... think through this logically.... what does the statement 0*inf mean? it means ZERO infinities, or infinite ZEROES. if you have zero of something, it is zero and if you have infinite zeros, it is still zero... so just by deductive reasoning the answer has to be zero.
Learn like you are going to live forever, live like you are going to die tomorrow.
Propoganda
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March 29th, 2002, 03:40 PM
#30
Wow, this is the most mathamatical discusion on AO I have ever seen! Congrats to all!
but your all wrong... as any true trekkie knows the answer is Mango....
(think Q)
- Jimmy Mac
Replicants are like any technology, if there not a hazard, its not my problem....
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